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Why We Do Not Baptize for the Dead

  1. Why baptize for the dead when not one verse in the Bible commands us to do it? Neither is one word of explanation of the practice given.
  2. Why baptize for the dead when neither Christ nor any of the apostles did it?
  3. Why do it when not one verse commends or approves of the practice. I Corinthians 15:29 merely states that "they" (who were they?, why not "us"?) did it(one interpretation). Since there was no punctuation in the ancient Biblical manuscripts, it is perfectly legitimate to translate this verse as follows: "What shall they do who are being baptized? It is for the dead (i.e. dead bodies), if the dead rise not at all." (same construction is seen in Rom. 8:34) This is a more logical translation because it speaks of an event that was happening at the time, but there is no record of any (LDS type) baptism for the dead occurring at this time in history.
  4. Why do it when there will be no second chance for those who have already heard after this life according to II Nephi 9:38, Alma 34:31-35, 41:3, and 42:13; and for those who have NOT heard baptism is unnecessary according to Moroni 8:22-23. WHO IS IT FOR?
  5. Why do it when such a concept would make my destiny dependent on if/when someone else performed a ritual. That's unjust!
  6. Why do it when the Bible states that men will be judged on the basis of deeds done in the body not out of it (II Cor. 5:10).
  7. Why do it when the Book of Mormon (the fullness of the everlasting gospel - D & C 20:9) is silent on the subject?
  8. Why do it when I Timothy 2:5 shows there is only one mediator (proxy) between God and man - Jesus Christ. And Psalm 49:7 says, "None of them can by any means redeem his brother, nor give to God a ransom for him."
  9. Why do it when the thief on the cross was allowed to enter paradise (the third heaven; II Cor. 12:2-4, Luke 23:43, Rev. 2:7) immediately after he died, without being baptized.
  10. Why do it since nearly 150 new testament scriptures specify that a repentant FAITH is the one indispensable thing that saves us (for example, John 3:16, 3:36, 5:24, Acts 10:43, 16:31, Rom. 1:16-17, 3:24, 4:3-12, 5:1, 6:23, Titus 3:5, Gal. 3:2-6, Eph. 2:8-10).
  11. Why baptize for the dead? "Because Obadiah 9:21 speaks of 'savior on Mount Zion." This is no reference to baptism. In context the saviors were historic rescuers of the nation of Israel from their captors, the Edomites - see Ob. 9:8-10, 17-20 (Edomites = descendents of Esau).
  12. Why baptize for the dead? "Because Malachi 4:6 speaks of turning the heart of the father to the children and the heart of the children to their fathers." Baptism is not in view here. Luke 1:17 interprets this prophecy as a turning of the hearts of disobedient children back to the wisdom of the just or righteous parents - the opposite of what is involved in baptism for the dead.
  13. Why baptize for the dead? "Because Heb. 11:40 speaks of past people not being made perfect without us." There is no reference to baptism here. All the past people described in this chapter were people of outstanding FAITH. Yet they died without receiving God's promise (the land) during their lifetime because God first wanted to redeem some of US and include us in His family in order to perfect or complete his family of believers. They, as a body of believers, are not a complete without us (believers) being part of that body, too.
  14. Why baptize for the dead? "Because I Peter 3:19 says Christ preached to spirits in prison." Note how many presumptions are involved here:
    1. Did he offer salvation? There are 2 words for preach, one meaning proclaim (used in this verse) and another meaning evangelize.
    2. Would such an event ever be repeated by anyone?
    3. Would those who are called disobedient be the best subjects for such an offer? And why only the disobedient of Noah's time? Is that just?
    4. Was ANYthing offered? What did he actually say to the spirits?
    5. Was the proclamation to men or to angels, as some commentators believe (compare II Peter 2:4-5, Jude 6, Gen. 6:2)
  15. Why baptize for the dead? "Because of modern revelation." When modern revelation contradicts previous revelation Isa. 8:20, Gal. 1:6-9 , Acts 17:11 and other places require us to reject the new contradictory revelation.
  16. Why do it if it's not enough? If a second chance were involved, would it be just to require this ritual of someone yet IGNORE the other thing required of people (LDS teaching) - obedience? Why not also require proxy obedience? (People in the spirit world have no fleshly temptations to resist.)
  17. ARE there any people now in a "spirit prison"? The Bible speaks consistently of the righteous going to be with the Lord and the wicked being cast into hell. At the great white throne judgment scene, the dead are raised up from HELL to be judged, not from a spirit prison. Hell is a place of punishment; no believer will be sent there on a 'mission', for it says in I Thess 4:17, "and so shall we ever be with the Lord." (See also II Cor. 5:8 where it states that to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord.)
  18. Why do it when I Peter 1:18-19 states that we are not redeemed with corruptible things. Aren't temples, humans and water corruptible?

OUR actions determine our destiny. No human can "redeem" or be "proxy" for another (except the God-man, Christ). Those who reject Christ get no second chance (John 3:36); those who have never heard will not be judged for lack of baptism (where there is no law, there is no transgression - Rom. 2:12). There is NO reason to baptize for the dead. In my opinion, it is an unnecessary ritual, a side-track, and a waste of time and money.

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